It’s so hard for anyone of
us to consider that the language we use is flawed. If language is the tool we use to communicate
the ideas that are in our heads I can tell you even without reading Locke or Derrida
that I cant recall ever actually communicating my ideas fully with 100%
clarity, that is, with every single subtle nuance and feeling involved. I think we get so accustomed to failing
communications 100% that we naturally find a way to get enough of our ideas communicated as to leave us satisfied with the
goal of our communication.
I see clearly why we read
Locke and Derrida together, Derrida picks up with Locke didn’t have time to
expand. I use the word time because I
feel as though he would have if there were more hours in the day. As Locke suggests, we are all taught simple
meanings to simple words relatively unanimously with subtle variations.
However, when they become complex, mixed modes, we lack the tangibility in the
environment to maintain and universal meaning from person to person and place
to place. (818, Locke) Derrida expands on this by holding that
“language--especially written language--cannot escape the built-in biases of
the cultural history that produced it”. (253, Herrick) When we try and explain
one of these complex situations to a friend we can never truly relay what we
felt with 100% accuracy, for Derrida we have to constantly use other words to
reinforce the meaning. Which then
becomes a never-ending hand-off of meaning that postpones communication
indefinitely. The differance is, (please
correct me at will, this is why I’m including this metaphor)as I understand it,
to be the shoelace that makes your shoes different from your friends but
defines them both as shoes in a general sense. It’s the difference in those
laces that make one a shoe with red shoes and one a shoe with blue, but the
presence of those laces in both that remain as they are both shoes. This example may not cover it but it’s the
best I could do!
The first big question I had
(other than the second-or-two too long it took me to break down “irreducibly”)
was about the difference between his term “differance” and the typical term
“difference”. It couldn’t be
specifically to use spell check against me, moreover, what is Derrida saying about
signification/meaning/rhetoric in general, or the actuality of differences with
this subtle change in spelling that we cannot hear? “The a of differance… is not heard; it
remains silent, secret, and discreet, like a tomb” (280, Derrida). He states himself in the next passage that
this difference in terms must be explicitly stated every time it’s used verbally
and how that wouldn’t make anything easier (281, Derrida). Derrida talks about the idea that I
understood to be keeping the basis of this meaning in text form. “This will
refer irreducibly to a written text, a text governing my talk… “ (281, Derrida)
When Locke starts to outline the ways in which meanings start to vary, he
states this as one of those reasons, “where the ideas they stand for have no
certain connection in nature; and so no settled standard anywhere in nature
existing, to rectify and adjust them by” (818, Locke) Perhaps a piece of the
purpose-puzzle of Derrida’s different term “differance” was to provide a
standard in nature that exists for his idea and for people’s protean meanings
of that idea to be rectified and adjusted by, perhaps to protect them from
misinterpretation by forcing them to be based physically in text?
Works cited
Works cited
- Derrida, Jacques. “Différance.” Literary Theory: An Anthology, Second Edition. Ed. Julie Rivkin and Michael Ryan. Malden, MA: Wiley/Blackwell, 2004. 278-288.
- Herrick, James A. The History and Theory of Rhetoric: An Introduction, Third Edition. Boston, MA: Pearson, 2005. Excerpts on “Contemporary Rhetoric” (222-240), “Derrida” (253-256)
- Locke, John. "From An Essay Concerning Human Understanding." The Rhetorical Tradition: Reading from Classical Times to the Present, Second Edition. Ed. Patricia Bizzell and Bruce Herzberg. New York: Bedford/St. Martin's, 2001. 817-827.
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